It is apparent that the Supreme Court of these United States believes that homosexuals and lesbians have a basic right to have their “unnatural” and “abnormal” sexual desires and activities regarded as being legally approved by the civil act of securing a “marriage” license in a civil court and going through a public ceremony of sharing “loving” pledges. This legal decision has many repercussions for other sexual activities between “sexually mature” individuals.
Pedophiles have already started to talk about and to make plans for court cases to secure their “legal” right to practice their sexual preferences with other sexual individuals, particularly with children under the age of 18, as long it is mutually consented activity and not done in public. This logically raises a question as to whether or not “sexual mature children” under the age of 18 have a legal right to be sexually active with consenting partners of their choice. Since relationships between same sexed individuals can’t produce any children; and, if the female in a heterosexual relationship gets pregnant, she can have an abortion that some insurance plan will probably cover. So why shouldn’t it be legalized?
Polygamous men and women are also talking about and I assume making plans for the extension of these “rights” to their sexual relationships and family covenants. Why not legalize them as they are mutually consented to and as long as the dependent individuals are not going to be a financial burden on the general population of their communities?
And what about prostitutes? Are they entitled to the legal “right” to practice their “business” in all 50 states to serve their naturally driven consenting “customers” to seek their sexual services like any motel or hotel is generally legally free to rent its rooms to non married adults. Logically I don’t see how their activity with a sexual partner is legally any different from that of a consenting “sleep over” with a person after a “date”. Why should that activity of the prostitute be judged as “illegal” when that of the other individuals in a “sleep over” is not so judged?
And what about the practice of incest within families? Do heterosexual couples as well as homosexual couples now have the legal right to engage in sexual activities with their children as long as such activities are not forced and particularly if they are done in “loving” expressions of sex education and training in legal sexual activities?
I think that all expressions of non-consensual sex, rapes, and public displays of sexual activity between adults will still basically be considered to be illegal in our country. But the line between sexual “rights” and the “legal” expressions of those “rights” and what is “illegal” and “immoral” is changing, at least in how some judges rule in these matters. The public discussion of these matters is already underway. Let’s talk about this on this blog.